Atlas Aviation - FAA airmen written test question bank

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06/09/2003
Bank: (Flight and Ground Instructor and Pilot Examiner)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books.

1.	L34	CFI
Most midair collision accidents occur during
A) hazy days.
B) clear days.
C) cloudy nights.

2.	L34	CFI
The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to
A) turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region.
B) avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.
C) avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect of ground lights on the eyes.

3.	L34	CFI
What is an effective way to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic pattern?
A) Enter the pattern in a descent.
B) Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area.
C) Rely on radio reports from other aircraft who may be operating in the traffic pattern.

4.	B08	CFI
A helicopter may be operated at less than the minimum safe altitudes prescribed by regulations for other aircraft if
A) the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property.
B) an altitude of at least 500 feet is maintained over other than congested areas.
C) at least 500 feet is maintained above the highest obstacle within a radius of 1,000 feet.

5.	B08	CFI
While in flight, a steady red light directed at you from the control tower means
A) continue flight; airport unsafe, do not land.
B) give way to other aircraft; continue circling.
C) return for landing; expect steady green light at the appropriate time.

6.	B08	CFI
What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport?
A) The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.
B) Make all left turns, except a 45° right turn on the first crosswind leg.
C) Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.

7.	B08	CFI
What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace?
A) Private Pilot Certificate.
B) Commercial Pilot Certificate.
C) Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate endorsement.

8.	B08	CFI
What is the minimum fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane? Enough to fly to
A) the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 20 minutes at normal cruise speed.
B) the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
C) the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

9.	B08	CFI
To operate an aircraft over any congested area, a pilot should maintain an altitude of at least
A) 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
B) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

10.	B08	CFI
When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
A) 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
B) 3 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.
C) 1 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.

11.	B08	CFI
Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?
A) 2,500 feet.
B) 3,000 feet.
C) 4,000 feet.

12.	B07	CFI
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A) 8 hours.
B) 12 hours.
C) 24 hours.

13.	A26	CFI
To endorse a student pilot's logbook for solo flight, an instructor is required, in part, to have
A) given that student cross-country flight training.
B) given that student flight training in the type of aircraft involved.
C) at least 5 hours of experience as pilot in command in the aircraft involved.

14.	A26	CFI
A Flight Instructor Certificate may be renewed by
A) passing both a knowledge and a practical test.
B) successfully completing a flight instructor refresher course within 3 calendar months prior to renewal.
C) providing a record of training showing evidence the applicant has given at least 80 hours of flight training in the last 24 months.

15.	A27	CFI
The holder of a Ground Instructor Certificate with an advanced rating is authorized to provide
A) a recommendation for an instrument rating knowledge test.
B) ground training for any flight review or instrument proficiency check.
C) ground training in aeronautical knowledge areas for any pilot certificate or rating.

16.	B08	CFI
A pilot in a multiengine land airplane is planning to practice IFR procedures under a hood in VMC conditions. The safety pilot must possess at least a
A) Recreational Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating.
B) Private Pilot Certificate with airplane multiengine land rating and a current medical certificate.
C) Private Pilot Certificate with airplane and instrument ratings, but a current medical certificate is not required.

17.	B07	CFI
An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the
A) FAA-approved aircraft flight manual.
B) owner's handbook published by the aircraft manufacturer.
C) aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

18.	B08	CFI
Which preflight action is required for every flight?
A) Check weather reports and forecasts.
B) Determine runway length at airports of intended use.
C) Determine alternatives if the flight cannot be completed.

19.	B08	CFI
Which statement is true regarding the use of seatbelts and shoulder harnesses?
A) Crewmembers must keep seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened at all times during movement on the surface.
B) The pilot in command must ensure that each person on board an aircraft is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seatbelts.
C) Passengers must keep seatbelts fastened at all times during movement on the surface but use of shoulder harnesses is optional.

20.	B08	CFI
If on a night flight, the pilot of aircraft A observes only the green wingtip light of aircraft B, and the airplanes are converging, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A) Aircraft A; it is to the left of aircraft B.
B) Aircraft B; it is to the right of aircraft A.
C) Aircraft A; it is to the right of aircraft B.

21.	B08	CFI
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
A) The airship.
B) The airplane.
C) Each should alter course to the right.

22.	B08	CFI
When flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is
A) 156 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 250 knots.

23.	B07	CFI
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, a pilot in command may
A) deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency.
B) not deviate from FAR's unless permission is obtained from air traffic control.
C) deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.

24.	B13	CFI
An aircraft operated for hire with passengers aboard has a 100-hour inspection performed after 90 hours in service. The next 100-hour inspection would be due after
A) 90 hours' time in service.
B) 100 hours' time in service.
C) 110 hours' time in service.

25.	B08	CFI
Which is required to operate a helicopter within Class E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR?
A) The pilot must possess an instrument rating and have satisfied currency requirements.
B) The helicopter must be equipped for instrument flight and the visibility must be at least 1 mile.
C) The helicopter must be operated at a speed that allows the pilot the opportunity to see and avoid other traffic or obstructions.

26.	B11	CFI
What are the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace?
A) None, provided the flight remains above the airspace ceiling.
B) Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 feet MSL.
C) Two-way radio communications must be established with ATC and transponder must be operating at all times.

27.	B12	CFI
What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?
A) 1,500 feet AGL and 5 miles.
B) 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
C) 3,000 feet AGL and 3 miles.

28.	B13	CFI
Assuring compliance with airworthiness directives is the responsibility of the
A) FAA certificated mechanic.
B) pilot in command of the aircraft.
C) owner or operator of the aircraft.

29.	B13	CFI
If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being flown
A) with passengers aboard.
B) for compensation or hire.
C) by instructors and students.

30.	B13	CFI
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
A) Its use is not permitted.
B) It may be used anywhere except in Class A and B airspace.
C) It may be used for VFR flight but not for IFR flight.

31.	B13	CFI
A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include the previous
A) operating hours of the engine.
B) annual inspections performed on the engine.
C) changes required by airworthiness directives.

32.	D12	CFI
Information recorded during normal operation by a required cockpit voice recorder in a passenger-carrying airplane
A) may be erased only once each flight.
B) may all be erased except the last 30 minutes.
C) must be retained for 30 minutes after landing.

33.	G10	CFI
The NTSB defines a serious injury as any injury which
A) causes severe tendon damage.
B) results in a simple fracture of the nose.
C) involves first degree burns over 5 percent of the body.

34.	G11	CFI
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office shall be notified
A) immediately.
B) within 7 days.
C) within 10 days.

35.	B13	CFI
An aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
A) July 13, next year.
B) July 31, next year.
C) 12 calendar months after the date shown on the Airworthiness Certificate.

36.	B08	CFI
While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 5 SM.
B) 3 SM.
C) 1 SM.

37.	B08	CFI
What minimum flight visibility is required when flying a glider above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL?
A) 3 SM.
B) 5 NM.
C) 5 SM.

38.	B08	CFI
When operating an airplane within Class D airspace under special VFR, the flight visibility is required to be at least
A) 3 SM.
B) 2 SM.
C) 1 SM.

39.	B11	CFI
How long before the proposed operation should a request be submitted to the controlling ATC facility to operate in Class C airspace without the required altitude reporting transponder?
A) 1 hour.
B) 8 hours.
C) 24 hours.

40.	B11	CFI
Regarding certificates and documents, no person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it an
A) Airworthiness Certificate and minimum equipment list (MEL).
B) Airworthiness Certificate, aircraft and engine logbooks, and owner's handbook.
C) Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, and approved flight manual.

41.	B11	CFI
When an aircraft is being flown over water, under what circumstance must approved flotation gear be readily available to each occupant?
A) At night and beyond gliding distance from shore.
B) Anytime the aircraft is beyond power-off gliding distance from shore
C) When operating for hire beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.

42.	B11	CFI
How long may an aircraft be operated after the emergency locator transmitter has been initially removed for maintenance?
A) 90 days.
B) 30 days.
C) 7 days.

43.	B11	CFI
Position lights are required to be displayed on all aircraft in flight from
A) sunset to sunrise.
B) 1 hour before sunset to 1 hour after sunrise.
C) 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset.

44.	B11	CFI
Which cabin pressure altitude allows a pilot to operate an aircraft up to 30 minutes without supplemental oxygen?
A) 12,500 feet MSL.
B) 12,600 feet MSL.
C) 14,100 feet MSL.

45.	B11	CFI
The primary purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL) is to
A) provide a list of equipment that must be operational at all times on the aircraft.
B) list the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft.
C) list the minimum equipment that must be installed in all aircraft as required by airworthiness directives.

46.	A20	CFI
What flight time must be recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
A) All flight time.
B) Only the flight time necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
C) All flight time flown for hire with passengers and/or cargo aboard the aircraft.

47.	A20	CFI
What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A) One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
B) One-half the time the aircraft is in actual instrument conditions.
C) All of the time the second in command is controlling the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.

48.	A20	CFI
A flight review will consist of
A) a minimum of 1 hour ground training and 1 hour flight training.
B) at least 1 hour of flight time to include at least three takeoffs and landings.
C) three takeoffs and landings and a review of those maneuvers necessary for the pilot to demonstrate the appropriate pilot privileges.

49.	A150	CFI
If the certification category of an airplane is listed as 'utility,' it means the airplane is intended for which maneuvers?
A) Any type of acrobatic maneuver.
B) All nonacrobatic maneuvers plus limited acrobatics including spins.
C) Any maneuver incident to normal flying except acrobatics or spins.

50.	A20	CFI
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A) 1829.
B) 1859.
C) 1929.

51.	A21	CFI
A person seeking a private pilot glider rating is exempt from taking the knowledge test if that person
A) holds a rating for powered aircraft.
B) holds a pilot certificate for any category.
C) has taken a knowledge test for any powered rating within the preceding 24 months.

52.	A22	CFI
An applicant who is seeking a Student Pilot Certificate limited to helicopters is required to be at least how old?
A) 16 years.
B) 17 years.
C) 18 years.

53.	A20	CFI
To act as pilot in command of an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable prop, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to
A) complete a practical test in such an airplane.
B) have made at least three takeoffs and landings in such an airplane in the last 90 days.
C) receive ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement of proficiency.

54.	A20	CFI
What recent flight experience must be met before a commercial airplane pilot may fly solo in an airplane?
A) Three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an airplane.
B) Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review in any aircraft for which rated within the preceding 24 calendar months.
C) Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months, but this review must be in an airplane.

55.	A20	CFI
What minimum documentation is required to take an FAA knowledge test for any flight instructor rating?
A) Proper identification.
B) Proof of satisfactory completion of the appropriate ground training or home study course.
C) Authorization from an FAA inspector who has verified and endorsed the applicant's training record.

56.	A20	CFI
A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued on May 3 to a person over 40 years of age. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid through
A) May 3, 24 months later.
B) May 31, 24 months later.
C) May 31, 36 months later.

57.	A20	CFI
To act as pilot in command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to
A) successfully complete a practical test in such an airplane.
B) receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
C) make three takeoffs and landings with an authorized instructor in an airplane of the same make and model.

58.	A20	CFI
What is the duration of a Student Pilot Certificate?
A) Indefinite.
B) 12 calendar months from the month in which it was issued.
C) 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued.

59.	A26	CFI
The type and date of each student pilot endorsement given shall be maintained by each flight instructor. For what period of time is this record required to be retained?
A) 1 year.
B) 2 years.
C) 3 years.

60.	A20	CFI
A flight instructor applicant must demonstrate spins in an airplane or glider when
A) the practical test for initial certification is being given.
B) being retested for deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness or spins demonstrated during an initial test.
C) the airplane or glider to be used for the practical test is certificated for spins and the applicant is being given an initial practical test.

61.	A20	CFI
To act as pilot in command of a glider using aerotow procedures, a person must have
A) received 5 hours of ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations in a glider, and completed a practical test.
B) received ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations in a glider, and received an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying proficiency.
C) made three solo takeoffs in a glider of the same make and model using aerotow procedures, and received an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying proficiency in the procedures.

62.	A20	CFI
What action may be taken against a person whom the Administrator finds has cheated on a knowledge test?
A) Any certificate or rating held by the person may be suspended or revoked.
B) That person will be required to wait 24 months before taking another knowledge test.
C) That person may be required to wait a maximum of 6 months before applying for any other certificate or rating.

63.	A20	CFI
What class medical certificate, if any, is required for a person adding a rating to a pilot certificate?
A) None.
B) Second-Class.
C) Third-Class.

64.	A20	CFI
An applicant who holds a Commercial Pilot Certificate with ASEL ratings is seeking a MEL rating at the commercial level. On August 1, 2000, the applicant shows you a second class medical dated January 2, 1999. May the applicant take the practical test?
A) No.
B) Yes.
C) Yes, but at the private pilot skill level.

65.	A20	CFI
A person whose Flight Instructor Certificate has been suspended may not
A) give flight training, but may apply for a rating to be added to that certificate.
B) apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension.
C) apply for any Flight Instructor Certificate for a period of 1 year after the date of the suspension.

66.	A20	CFI
An applicant has failed a knowledge test for the second time. With training and an endorsement from an authorized instructor, when may the applicant apply for a retest?
A) immediately.
B) After 5 days.
C) After 30 days.

67.	A29	CFI
A recreational pilot with less than 400 hours' flight time may not act as pilot in command unless the pilot has
A) logged pilot-in-command time in the last 90 days.
B) logged pilot-in-command time in the last 180 days.
C) received flight instruction from an instructor who certifies the pilot is competent to conduct flights beyond 50 miles.

68.	A23	CFI
Your student, who is preparing for a Private Pilot practical test in a single-engine airplane, received 3.5 hours of cross-country flight training including flights of 1.9 hours, 1.0 hours, and .6 hours. Is your student eligible to take the practical test?
A) No.
B) Yes.
C) Yes but, if test is satisfactory, certificate will have an ICAO limitation on it.

69.	A01	CFI
A 'stopway' can be defined as an area
A) designated for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff.
B) not as wide as the runway but capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.
C) at least the same width as the runway capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

70.	A23	CFI
What night flight training is required for an unrestricted Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating?
A) 3 hours to include 10 takeoffs and 10 landings and one cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles.
B) 3 hours to include five takeoffs and five landings (each landing from a traffic pattern).
C) 1 hour to include three takeoffs and three landings.

71.	A24	CFI
As pilot, how much gyroplane flight time should an applicant have for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with a gyroplane rating?
A) 150 hours.
B) 100 hours.
C) 25 hours.

72.	A23	CFI
What flight time is required for a Private Pilot Certificate with a helicopter rating?
A) A minimum of 40 hours, 19 hours of which must be in helicopters.
B) A minimum of 40 hours in helicopters with at least 15 hours of solo time.
C) A minimum of 40 hours including at least 15 hours of flight training in helicopters.

73.	A20	CFI
To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate, one of the requirements is for the applicant to hold at least a valid
A) First-Class Medical Certificate.
B) Second-Class Medical Certificate.
C) Third-Class Medical Certificate.

74.	A24	CFI
Under FAR Part 61, a commercial pilot-airplane applicant is required to have a minimum of how much cross-country experience?
A) 30 hours.
B) 40 hours.
C) 50 hours.

75.	A22	CFI
Prior to a first solo flight, the flight instructor is required to endorse the student's
A) logbook.
B) pilot certificate.
C) logbook and pilot certificate.

76.	A01	CFI
Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to
A) the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B) exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft.
C) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

77.	A22	CFI
Who is responsible for administering the required knowledge test to a student pilot prior to solo flight?
A) Any certificated flight instructor.
B) Any certificated ground instructor.
C) The student's authorized instructor.

78.	A26	CFI
What requirement(s) must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare a glider applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate rating?
A) Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 24 months or given 200 hours of flight training.
B) Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 12 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of training.
C) Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of glider training.

79.	A22	CFI
A student pilot may not operate a balloon in initial solo flight unless that pilot has
A) received a minimum of 5 hours' flight instruction in a balloon.
B) a valid Student Pilot Certificate and logbook endorsement by an authorized flight instructor.
C) made at least 10 balloon flights under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor.

80.	A01	CFI
Which is a definition of the term 'crewmember'?
A) A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
B) Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
C) Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.

81.	A22	CFI
One requirement for a student pilot to be authorized to make a solo cross-country flight is an endorsement
A) in the student's logbook that the instructor has given the student cross-country instruction in the model of aircraft to be used.
B) in the student's logbook that the preflight planning and preparation has been reviewed and the student is prepared to make the flight safely.
C) on the Student Pilot Certificate stating the student is competent to make cross-country flights in the category, class, and type of aircraft involved.

82.	A01	CFI
Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady flight speed at which an airplane is controllable?
A) V_s.
B) V_s1.
C) V_so.

83.	A22	CFI
To operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace, a student must have a logbook endorsement showing that he/she has
A) received flight instruction from any authorized flight instructor on operating within Class B airspace.
B) received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized.
C) within the preceding 90 days, been found to be competent by any flight instructor having knowledge of the student's experience in that specific airspace.

84.	I30	CFI
Hail, an in-flight hazard, is most likely to be associated with
A) cumulus clouds.
B) stratocumulus clouds.
C) cumulonimbus clouds.

85.	I31	CFI
Radiation fog is most likely to occur under what conditions?
A) Warm, moist air being forced upslope by light winds resulting in the air being cooled and condensed.
B) High humidity during the early evening, cool cloudless night with light winds, and favorable topography.
C) Low temperature/dewpoint spread, calm wind conditions, the presence of hydroscopic nuclei, low overcast, and favorable topography.

86.	I31	CFI
One condition necessary for the formation of fog is
A) calm air.
B) visible moisture.
C) high relative humidity.

87.	I64	CFI
(Refer to figure 14.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
A) For overall planning at all altitudes.
B) For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
C) For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage.

88.	I30	CFI
Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm.
A) The initial stage of a thunderstorm is always indicated by the development of a nimbus cloud.
B) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm.
C) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm.

89.	I28	CFI
Consider the following statements about mountain waves:
1. Mountain waves always develop in a series on the upwind (windward) side of mountain ridges.
2. In a mountain wave, the air dips sharply downward immediately to the lee side of a ridge, before rising and falling in a wave motion for a considerable distance downstream.
3. If the air is humid and the wave is of large amplitude, lenticular (lens-shaped) clouds mark the wave's crest.
4. In a typical wave, the greatest amplitude is seldom more than 1,000 feet above the ridge crest elevation.
From the statements above, select those which are true.
A) 2 and 3.
B) 1, 2, and 3.
C) 1, 3, and 4.

90.	I28	CFI
When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the
A) leeward side when flying with the wind.
B) leeward side when flying into the wind.
C) windward side when flying into the wind.

91.	I28	CFI
Low-level wind shear, which results in a sudden change of wind direction, may occur
A) after a warm front has passed.
B) when surface winds are light and variable.
C) when there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion.

92.	I28	CFI
Which condition could be expected if a strong temperature inversion exists near the surface?
A) Strong, steady downdrafts and an increase in OAT.
B) A wind shear with the possibility of a sudden loss of airspeed.
C) An OAT increase or decrease with a constant wind condition.

93.	I29	CFI
The most rapid accumulation of clear ice on an aircraft in flight may occur with temperatures between 0 °C to -15 °C in
A) cumuliform clouds.
B) stratiform clouds.
C) any clouds or dry snow.

94.	I30	CFI
What are the minimum requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A) Sufficient moisture and a lifting action.
B) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and lifting action.
C) Towering cumulus clouds, sufficient moisture, and a frontal zone.

95.	I30	CFI
What feature is associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
A) Frequent lightning.
B) Continuous updrafts.
C) Beginning of rain at the surface.

96.	I35	CFI
Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation?
A) Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward.
B) Warm air is less dense and rises on its own accord.
C) Cool air surrounding convective circulation sinks at a greater rate than the warmer air rises (within the thermal), thus forcing the warmer air upward.

97.	I30	CFI
A squall line is usually associated with a
A) stationary front.
B) fast-moving cold front.
C) fast-moving warm front.

98.	I30	CFI
Consider the following statements regarding hail as an in-flight hazard and select those which are correct.
1. There is a correlation between the visual appearance of thunderstorms and the amount of hail within them.
2 Large hail is most commonly found in thunderstorms which have strong updrafts and large liquid water content.
3 Hail may be found at any level within a thunderstorm but not in the clear air outside of the storm cloud.
4 Hail is usually produced during the mature stage of the thunderstorm's lifespan.
5 Hailstones may be thrown upward and outward from a storm cloud for several miles.
The true statements are:
A) 2, 4, and 5.
B) 1, 2, and 3.
C) 1, 2, 4, and 5.

99.	I29	CFI
Which is an operational consideration regarding aircraft structural icing?
A) It is unnecessary for an aircraft to fly through rain or cloud droplets for structural ice to form.
B) Clear ice is most likely to form on an airplane when flying through stratified clouds or light drizzle.
C) In order for structural ice to form, the temperature at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0 °C (32 °F) or colder.

100.	I65	CFI
Regarding Convective Outlook Charts, when well-organized severe thunderstorms are expected, but in small numbers and/or low coverage, the risk is referred to as
A) SLGT.
B) POSSIBLE.
C) MDT.

101.	I35	CFI
The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of
A) unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 15 to 25 knots blowing across the ridge.
B) stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 15 to 25 knots blowing across the ridge.
C) moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.

102.	I61	CFI
From which of the following can the observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread be determined at specified flight levels?
A) Stability Charts.
B) Winds Aloft Forecasts.
C) Constant Pressure Charts.

103.	J25	CFI
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A) One microburst may continue for as long as an hour.
B) Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes.
C) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

104.	J25	CFI
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A) 6,000 feet per minute.
B) 4,500 feet per minute.
C) 1,500 feet per minute.

105.	J25	CFI
How long do the maximum intensity winds last in an individual microburst?
A) 2 to 4 minutes.
B) 5 to 10 minutes.
C) 15 minutes.

106.	I62	CFI
(Refer to figure 16.) What are the probable weather conditions in the area indicated by arrow D on the Stability Chart?
A) Stable air; predominately fair.
B) High relative humidity; showers and thunderstorms.
C) Marginally unstable air; moderate turbulence and possible thunderstorms.

107.	I65	CFI
(Refer to figure 15.) What percent coverage of severe thunderstorms is forecast to occur in the area of moderate risk in the north-central United States?
A) 6 to 10.
B) 10 to 50.
C) 50 to 90.

108.	I31	CFI
With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?
A) It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.
B) It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically.
C) It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.

109.	I31	CFI
Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?
A) Ground fog.
B) Advection fog.
C) Precipitation-induced fog.

110.	I32	CFI
In reference to clear air turbulence (CAT), areas to be avoided are those where horizontal wind shear exceeds
A) 40 knots per 150 miles.
B) 10 knots per 50 miles.
C) 6 knots per 1,000 feet.

111.	I35	CFI
An important precaution when soaring in a dust devil is to
A) avoid the eye of the vortex because of extreme turbulence.
B) avoid steep turns on the upwind side to prevent being blown into the vortex.
C) avoid the clear area at the outside edge of the dust because of severe downdrafts.

112.	I35	CFI
Which statement is true regarding the effect of fronts on soaring conditions?
A) A slow-moving front provides the strongest lift.
B) Excellent soaring conditions usually exist in the cold air ahead of a warm front.
C) Frequently the air behind a cold front provides excellent soaring for several days.

113.	I35	CFI
When soaring in the vicinity of mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from vertical and rotor-type currents will usually be encountered on the
A) leeward side when flying with the wind.
B) leeward side when flying into the wind.
C) windward side when flying into the wind.

114.	I35	CFI
One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and
A) below rotor clouds.
B) above rotor clouds.
C) below lenticular clouds.

115.	I31	CFI
Advection fog is formed as a result of
A) moist air moving over a colder surface.
B) the addition of moisture to a mass of cold air as it moves over a body of water.
C) the ground cooling adjacent air to the dewpoint temperature on clear, calm nights.

116.	I59	CFI
(Refer to figure 12.) what is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?
A) Stationary.
B) Warm.
C) Cold.

117.	I59	CFI
A Weather Depiction Chart is useful to a pilot in determining
A) the temperature and dew point at selected stations.
B) the forecast areas of cloud cover and precipitation.
C) areas where weather conditions were reported above or below VFR minimums.

118.	I59	CFI
(Refer to figure 10.) On a Weather Depiction Chart, what does this information mean?
A) Visibility 5 miles, sky obscured.
B) Visibility 5 miles, haze, overcast, ceiling 3,500 feet.
C) Visibility 3 to 5 miles, sky obscured, ceiling 5,000 feet.

119.	I57	CFI
(Refer to figure 7.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet.
A) 230° magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47 °C.
B) 230° true at 53 knots, temperature -47 °C.
C) 230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4 °C.

120.	I57	CFI
Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing?
A) PIREP.
B) SIGMET.
C) CONVECTIVE SIGMET.

121.	I57	CFI
What information would be covered in an AIRMET?
A) Severe turbulence.
B) Extensive mountain obscurement.
C) Hail of 3/4 inch or greater diameter.

122.	I57	CFI
(Refer to figure 6.) What sky condition and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?
A) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
B) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical miles visibility.
C) Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.

123.	I58	CFI
The intensity trend of a front (as of chart time) is best determined by referring to a
A) Surface Analysis Chart.
B) Radar Summary Chart.
C) Weather Depiction Chart.

124.	I22	CFI
An aircraft is flying at a constant power setting and constant indicated altitude. If the outside air temperature (OAT) decreases, true airspeed will
A) decrease, and true altitude will decrease.
B) increase, and true altitude will increase.
C) increase, and true altitude will decrease.

125.	I60	CFI
(Refer to figure 13, area B.) What is the top for precipitation of the radar return?
A) 24,000 feet AGL.
B) 24,000 feet MSL.
C) 2,400 feet MSL.

126.	I23	CFI
In the Northern Hemisphere, a pilot making a long distance flight from east to west would most likely find favorable winds associated with high- and low-pressure systems by flying to the
A) north of a high and a low.
B) north of a high and to the south of a low.
C) south of a high and to the north of a low.

127.	I23	CFI
What causes wind?
A) Coriolis force.
B) Pressure differences.
C) The rotation of the Earth.

128.	I22	CFI
As density altitude increases, which will occur if a constant indicated airspeed is maintained in a no-wind condition?
A) True airspeed increases; groundspeed decreases.
B) True airspeed decreases; groundspeed decreases.
C) True airspeed increases; groundspeed increases.

129.	I57	CFI
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, you should refer to
A) an Area Forecast.
B) an AIRMET or SIGMET.
C) a Weather Depiction Chart.

130.	I22	CFI
An altimeter indicates 1,850 feet MSL when set to 30.18. What is the approximate pressure altitude?
A) 1,590 feet.
B) 1,824 feet.
C) 2,110 feet.

131.	I21	CFI
If the air temperature is +6 °C at an elevation of 700 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?
A) 6,700 feet MSL.
B) 3,700 feet MSL.
C) 2,700 feet MSL.

132.	I21	CFI
The most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion is that produced by
A) terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
B) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
C) the movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.

133.	I21	CFI
Which is the primary driving force of weather on the Earth?
A) The Sun.
B) Coriolis.
C) Rotation of the Earth.

134.	I20	CFI
In what part of the atmosphere does most weather occur?
A) Tropopause.
B) Troposphere.
C) Stratosphere.

135.	I55	CFI
Consider the following statements regarding an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR).
1. A vertical visibility entry does not constitute a ceiling.
2. Fog (FG) can be reported only if the visibility is less than 5/8 mile.
3. The ceiling layer will be designated by a 'C'.
4. Mist (BR) can be reported only if the visibility is 5/8 mile up to six miles.
5. Temperatures reported below zero will be prefixed with a '-'.
6. There is no provision to report partial obscurations.
Select the true statements.
A) 2, 4, and 6.
B) 2, 3, and 5.
C) 1, 2, 5, and 6.

136.	I55	CFI
(Refer to figure 3.) Which station is reporting the wind as calm?
A) KDAL.
B) KFTW.
C) KTYR.

137.	I35	CFI
(Refer to figure 2.) Using the 0900 sounding, what minimum surface temperature is required for instability to occur and for good thermals to develop from the surface to 15,000 feet MSL?
A) 58 °F.
B) 80 °F.
C) 90 °F.

138.	I57	CFI
Vertical visibility is shown on METAR/TAF reports when the sky is
A) overcast.
B) obscured.
C) partially obscured.

139.	I57	CFI
(Refer to figure 5.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
A) 1200Z to 1200Z.
B) 1200Z to 1800Z.
C) 1800Z to 1800Z.

140.	I56	CFI
(Refer to figure 4.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
A) 505 feet AGL.
B) 1,295 feet AGL.
C) 6,586 feet AGL.

141.	I55	CFI
(Refer to figure 3.) The temperature/dew point spread at KAUS is
A) 4 ºC.
B) 4 ºF.
C) 7 ºC.

142.	I56	CFI
Interpret the following radar weather report:
LIT 1133 AREA 4TRW 22/100 88/170 196/180 220/115 C2425 MT 310 AT 162/110
A) There are four cells with tops at 10,000 feet, 17,000 feet, and 11,500 feet.
B) The maximum top of the cells is located 162° and 110 NM from the station (LIT).
C) The visibility is 4 miles in thunderstorms and the intensity of thunderstorms remains unchanged.

143.	I55	CFI
GIVEN:
KOUN 151355Z AUTO 22010KT 10SM CLR BLO 120 13/10 A2993 RMK A02 $.
The ASOS report indicates that the location is
A) reporting a temperature of 45 °F.
B) possibly in need of maintenance.
C) augmented with a weather observer.

144.	I57	CFI
For a brief summary of the location and movement of fronts, pressure systems, and circulation patterns, the pilot should refer to
A) a Radar Summary Chart.
B) an Aviation Area Forecast.
C) a Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.

145.	I25	CFI
If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be
A) cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.
B) cumulonimbus with considerable vertical development and heavy rains.
C) stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.

146.	I24	CFI
Which precipitation type usually indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?
A) Snow.
B) Hail.
C) Ice pellets.

147.	I24	CFI
Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds but evaporating before reaching the ground are known as
A) virga.
B) sublimation.
C) condensation trails.

148.	I27	CFI
Cool air moving over a warm surface is generally characterized by
A) instability and showers.
B) stability, fog, and drizzle.
C) instability and continuous precipitation.

149.	I25	CFI
From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A) Ambient lapse rate.
B) Atmospheric pressure.
C) Difference between standard temperature and surface temperature.

150.	I25	CFI
At approximately what altitude above the surface would you expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 77 °F and the dewpoint is 53 °F?
A) 9,600 feet AGL.
B) 8,000 feet AGL.
C) 5,500 feet AGL.

151.	I27	CFI
What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air and very warm surface temperature?
A) Fog and low stratus clouds.
B) Continuous heavy precipitation.
C) Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

152.	I26	CFI
Which middle level clouds are characterized by rain, snow, or ice pellets posing a serious icing problem if temperatures are near or below freezing?
A) Nimbostratus.
B) Altostratus lenticular.
C) Altocumulus castellanus.

153.	I27	CFI
Consider the following air mass characteristics:
1. Cumuliform clouds.
2. Stable lapse rate.
3. Unstable lapse rate.
4. Stratiform clouds and fog.
5. Smooth air (above the friction level) and poor visibility.
6. Turbulence up to about 10,000 feet and good visibility except in areas of precipitation.
A moist air mass, which is colder than the surface over which it passes, frequently has which of the above characteristics?
A) 1, 3, and 6.
B) 3, 4, and 5.
C) 2, 4, and 5.

154.	I27	CFI
What type weather is associated with an advancing warm front that has moist, unstable air?
A) Stratiform clouds, lightning, steady precipitation.
B) Cumuliform clouds, smooth air, steady precipitation.
C) Cumuliform clouds, turbulent air, showery-type precipitation.

155.	I23	CFI
Which statement is true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?
A) A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.
B) A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.
C) A high-pressure area is a trough of descending air.

156.	I24	CFI
Which is an operational consideration regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread?
A) The temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity decreases.
B) The temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity increases.
C) The temperature spread increases as the relative humidity increases.

157.	H316	CFI
How much weight must be shifted from Station 150.0 to Station 30.0 to move the CG to exactly the aft CG limit?
Total weight	7,500 lb
CG location	Station 80.5
Aft CG limit	Station 79.5
A) 68.9 pounds.
B) 65.8 pounds.
C) 62.5 pounds.

158.	N31	CFI
For a winch tow, which is an advantage of the CG hook over the nose hook?
A) A shallower climb can be used during launch.
B) Glider is less likely to pitch up if the towline breaks.
C) Likelihood of applying too much back-stick pressure is reduced.

159.	H104	CFI
The center of gravity of an aircraft is computed along the
A) lateral axis.
B) vertical axis.
C) longitudinal axis.

160.	H100	CFI
If the nosewheel of an airplane moves aft during gear retraction, how would this aft movement affect the CG location of that airplane? It would
A) cause the CG location to move aft.
B) have no effect on the CG location.
C) cause the CG location to move forward.

161.	H316	CFI
(Refer to figure 34.) How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?
A) 1 inch to the left.
B) 1 inch to the right.
C) 4.5 inches to the right.

162.	H316	CFI
(Refer to figure 36.) Determine the condition of the airplane:
Pilot and copilot	375 lb
Passengers - aft position	245 lb
Baggage	65 lb
Fuel	70 gal
A) 185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
B) 162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
C) 162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located aft of the aft limit.

163.	H316	CFI
Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?
Weight A	120 lb at 15 inches aft of datum
Weight B	200 lb at 117 inches aft of datum
Weight C	75 lb at 195 inches aft of datum
A) 100.8 inches.
B) 109.0 inches.
C) 121.7 inches.

164.	H316	CFI
(Refer to figure 33.) How should the 200-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?
A) 2.5 inches to the left.
B) 2 inches to the right.
C) 2 inches to the left.

165.	H316	CFI
(Refer to figure 35.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank?
A) 30 pounds.
B) 50 pounds.
C) 300 pounds.

166.	H316	CFI
What is the maximum weight that could be added at Station 130.0 without exceeding the aft CG limit?
Total weight	2,900 lb
CG location	Station 115.0
Aft CG limit	Station 116.0
A) 14 pounds.
B) 140 pounds.
C) 207 pounds.

167.	H316	CFI
What would be the new CG location if 135 pounds of weight were added at Station 109.0?
Total weight	2,340 lb
CG location	Station 103.0
A) Station 103.3.
B) Station 104.2.
C) Station 109.3.

168.	H316	CFI
What is the location of the CG if 90 pounds are removed from Station 140?
Aircraft weight	6,230 lb
CG location	Station 79
A) 79.9.
B) 78.1.
C) 77.9.

169.	H233	CFI
Which statement is true regarding positive or negative approaches in aviation instructional techniques?
A) A student with normal abilities should not be affected by an instructor who emphasizes emergency procedures early in training.
B) A positive approach, to be effective, will point out the pleasurable features of aviation before the unpleasant possibilities are discussed.
C) The introduction of emergency procedures before the student is acquainted with normal operations is likely to be neither discouraging nor affect learning.

170.	H233	CFI
Faulty performance due to student overconfidence should be corrected by
A) increasing the standard of performance for each lesson.
B) praising the student only when the performance is perfect.
C) providing strong, negative evaluation at the end of each lesson.

171.	H233	CFI
An instructor can most effectively maintain a high level of student motivation by
A) making each lesson a pleasurable experience.
B) relaxing the standards of performance required during the early phase of training.
C) continually challenging the student to meet the highest objectives of training that can be established.

172.	H235	CFI
True performance as a professional is based on study and
A) attitude.
B) perseverance.
C) research.

173.	H235	CFI
Which statement is true regarding true professionalism as an instructor?
A) Anything less than sincere performance destroys the effectiveness of the professional instructor.
B) To achieve professionalism, actions and decisions must be limited to standard patterns and practices.
C) A single definition of professionalism would encompass all of the qualifications and considerations which must be present.

174.	H211	CFI
When a student uses excuses to justify inadequate performance, it is an indication of the defense mechanism known as
A) flight.
B) aggression.
C) rationalization.

175.	H238	CFI
Students who grow impatient when learning the basic elements of a task are those who
A) are less easily discouraged than the unaggressive students.
B) should have the preliminary training presented one step at a time with clearly stated goals for each step.
C) should be advanced to the next higher level of learning and not held back by insisting that the immediate goal be reached before they proceed to the next level.

176.	H247	CFI
Each lesson of a training syllabus includes
A) attention, motivation, and overview.
B) introduction, development, and conclusion.
C) objective, content, and completion standards.

177.	H248	CFI
Which statement is true regarding lesson plans?
A) Lesson plans should not be directed toward the course objective; only to the lesson objective.
B) A well-thought out mental outline of a lesson may be used any time as long as the instructor is well prepared.
C) Lesson plans help instructors keep a constant check on their own activity as well as that of their students.

178.	H248	CFI
Every lesson, when adequately developed, falls logically into the four steps of the teaching process -
A) preparation, introduction, presentation, and review and application.
B) preparation, presentation, application, and review and evaluation.
C) preparation, introduction, presentation, and review and evaluation.

179.	H245	CFI
In planning any instructional activity, the first consideration should be to
A) determine the overall objectives and standards.
B) establish common ground between the instructor and student.
C) identify the blocks of learning which make up the overall objective.

180.	H248	CFI
(Refer to figure 1.) Section A is titled:
A) Overview.
B) Objective.
C) Introduction.

181.	H210	CFI
Which of the student's human needs offer the greatest challenge to an instructor?
A) Social.
B) Egoistic.
C) Self-fulfillment.

182.	H248	CFI
(Refer to figure 1.) Section D is titled:
A) Content.
B) Equipment.
C) Instructor's Actions.

183.	H210	CFI
Before a student can concentrate on learning, which human needs must be satisfied?
A) Safety.
B) Physical.
C) Security.

184.	H204	CFI
The least complex outcome in the psychomotor domain is
A) perception.
B) adaptation.
C) mechanism.

185.	H248	CFI
A lesson plan, if constructed properly, will provide an outline for
A) proceeding from the unknown to the known.
B) the teaching procedure to be used in a single instructional period.
C) establishing blocks of learning that become progressively larger in scope.

186.	H234	CFI
Before endorsing a student for solo flight, the instructor should require the student to demonstrate consistent ability to perform
A) slow flight, stalls, emergency landings, takeoffs and landings, and go-arounds.
B) all of the fundamental maneuvers.
C) all maneuvers specified in the Student Pilot Guide.

187.	H212	CFI
When under stress, normal individuals usually react
A) by showing excellent morale followed by deep depression.
B) by responding rapidly and exactly, often automatically, within the limits of their experience and training.
C) inappropriately such as extreme over-cooperation, painstaking self-control, and inappropriate laughing or singing.

188.	H212	CFI
The instructor can counteract anxiety in a student by
A) treating the student's fears as a normal reaction.
B) discontinuing instruction in tasks that cause anxiety.
C) allowing the student to decide when he/she is ready for a new maneuver to be introduced.

189.	H246	CFI
Which statement is true concerning extraneous blocks of instruction during a course of training?
A) They are usually necessary parts of the total objective.
B) They detract from the completion of the final objective.
C) They assist in the attainment of the lesson's objective.

190.	H234	CFI
Evaluation of demonstrated ability during flight instruction must be based upon
A) established standards of performance, suitably modified to apply to the student's experience.
B) the progress of the student, considering the time and experience attained since beginning training.
C) the instructor's background and experience relating to student pilots at this stage of training.

191.	H237	CFI
During integrated flight instruction, the instructor must be sure the student
A) develops the habit of looking for other traffic.
B) is able to control the aircraft for extended periods under IMC.
C) can depend on the flight instruments when maneuvering by outside references.

192.	H238	CFI
Students quickly become apathetic when they
A) realize material is being withheld by the instructor.
B) understand the objectives toward which they are working.
C) recognize that the instructor is not adequately prepared.

193.	H238	CFI
Which is one of the ways in which anxiety will affect a student?
A) Anxiety may limit the student's ability to learn from perceptions.
B) Anxiety will speed up the learning process for the student if properly controlled and directed by the instructor.
C) Anxiety causes dispersal of the student's attention over such a wide range of matters as to interfere with normal reactions.

194.	H237	CFI
Integrated flight instruction has many benefits but, the main objective is to
A) develop the student's ability to fly the aircraft during inadvertent IMC.
B) ensure the student is not overly dependent on instruments during VFR flight.
C) help the student develop habit patterns for observance of and reliance on flight instruments.

195.	H217	CFI
Which method of presentation is desirable for teaching a skill such as ground school lesson on the flight computer?
A) Lecture/application.
B) Presentation/practice.
C) Demonstration/performance.

196.	H223	CFI
A question directed to an entire group to stimulate thought and response from each group member is identified as
A) Relay.
B) Overhead.
C) Rhetorical.

197.	H211	CFI
When students display the defense mechanism called aggression, they
A) become visibly angry, upset, and childish.
B) may refuse to participate in class activities.
C) attempt to justify actions by asking numerous questions.

198.	H223	CFI
Which question would be best as a leadoff question for a guided discussion on the subject of torque?
A) Does torque affect an airplane?
B) How does torque affect an airplane?
C) What effect does torque have on an airplane in a turn?

199.	H223	CFI
When it appears students have adequately discussed the ideas presented during a guided discussion, one of the most valuable tools an instructor can use is
A) a session of verbal testing.
B) a written test on the subject discussed.
C) an interim summary of what the students accomplished.

200.	H224	CFI
In the demonstration/performance method of instruction, which two separate actions are performed concurrently?
A) Instructor explanation and demonstration.
B) Student performance and instructor supervision.
C) Instructor explanation and student demonstration.

201.	H224	CFI
What is the last step in the demonstration/performance method?
A) Summary.
B) Evaluation.
C) Student performance.

202.	H225	CFI
Which statement is true concerning computer-based training (CBT)?
A) CBT may be used by the instructor as stand-alone training.
B) One of the major advantages of CBT is that students can progress at a rate which is comfortable for them.
C) The instructor need not be actively involved with the students when using instructional aids.

203.	H213	CFI
To communicate effectively, instructors must
A) recognize the level of comprehension.
B) provide an atmosphere which encourages questioning.
C) reveal a positive attitude while delivering their message.

204.	H221	CFI
The first step in preparing a lecture is to
A) research the subject.
B) develop the main ideas or key points.
C) establish the objective and desired outcome.

205.	H214	CFI
By using abstractions in the communication process, the communicator will
A) bring forth specific items of experience in the minds of the receivers.
B) be using words which refer to objects or ideas that human beings can experience directly.
C) not evoke in the listener's or reader's mind the specific items of experience the communicator intends.

206.	H219	CFI
Which statement is true regarding student evaluation?
A) The student's own evaluations can only be objective.
B) Evaluation of the student's learning should be an integral part of each lesson.
C) If deficiencies or faults not associated with the present lesson are revealed, they should be corrected immediately.

207.	H219	CFI
Evaluation of student performance and accomplishment during a lesson should be based on
A) objectives and goals established in the lesson plan.
B) performance of each student compared to an objective standard.
C) each student's ability to make an objective evaluation of their own progress.

208.	H220	CFI
The proper sequence for the subparts of an introduction is
A) attention, motivation, and overview.
B) attention, development, and overview.
C) overview, motivation, and conclusion.

209.	H220	CFI
The method of arranging lesson material from the simple to complex, past to present, and known to unknown, is one that
A) creates student thought pattern departures.
B) shows the relationships of the main points of the lesson.
C) requires students to actively participate in the lesson.

210.	H222	CFI
An instructional strategy which organizes students into small groups so that they can work together to maximize their own and each other's learning is called
A) workshop learning.
B) cooperative or group learning.
C) heterogeneous group learning.

211.	H220	CFI
In developing a lesson, the instructor should organize explanations and demonstrations to help the student
A) achieve the desired learning outcome.
B) acquire a thorough understanding of the material presented.
C) acquire new concepts, generally progressing from the known to the unknown.

212.	H221	CFI
An instructor can inspire active student participation during informal lectures through the use of
A) questions.
B) visual aids.
C) encouragement.

213.	H222	CFI
The most significant characteristic of group learning is that it
A) continually requires active participation of the student.
B) usually requires passive participation of the student.
C) continually requires active participation of both the student and the instructor.

214.	H226	CFI
Which statement is true about instructors' critiques?
A) Instructors should rely on their personality to make a critique more acceptable.
B) A comprehensive critique should emphasize positive aspects of student performance.
C) Before students willingly accept their instructor's critique, they must first accept the instructor.

215.	H225	CFI
The major advantage of computer-based training (CBT) over other forms of instruction is that it is interactive - the computer responds in different ways, depending on the student's
A) background.
B) input.
C) training.

216.	H227	CFI
A written test is said to be comprehensive when it
A) includes all levels of difficulty.
B) samples liberally whatever is being measured.
C) measures knowledge of the same topic in many different ways.

217.	H227	CFI
Which is the main disadvantage of supply-type test items?
A) They cannot be graded with uniformity.
B) They are readily answered by guessing.
C) They are easily adapted to statistical analysis.

218.	H227	CFI
A written test has validity when it
A) yields consistent results.
B) samples liberally whatever is being measured.
C) measures what it is supposed to measure.

219.	H227	CFI
Which is one of the major difficulties encountered in the construction of multiple-choice test items?
A) Adapting the items to statistical item analysis.
B) Keeping all responses approximately equal in length.
C) Inventing distractors which will be attractive to students lacking knowledge or understanding.

220.	H235	CFI
Which would more likely result in students becoming frustrated?
A) Giving the students meaningless praise.
B) Telling students their work is unsatisfactory with no explanation.
C) Covering up instructor mistakes or bluffing when the instructor is in doubt.

221.	H227	CFI
In a written test, which type of selection-type test items reduces the probability of guessing correct responses?
A) Essay.
B) Matching.
C) Multiple-choice.

222.	H211	CFI
When a student asks irrelevant questions or refuses to participate in class activities, it usually is an indication of the defense mechanism known as
A) flight.
B) aggression.
C) resignation.

223.	H228	CFI
Which is a true statement concerning the use of instructional aids?
A) Instructional aids ensure getting and holding the student's attention.
B) Instructional aids should be designed to cover the key points in a lesson.
C) Instructional aids should not be used simply to cover a subject in less time.

224.	H226	CFI
When an instructor critiques a student, it should always be
A) done in private.
B) subjective rather than objective.
C) conducted immediately after the student's performance.

225.	H227	CFI
Practical tests for pilot certification are
A) norm-referenced.
B) criterion-referenced.
C) evaluation-referenced.

226.	H227	CFI
The objective of the Practical Test Standards (PTS) is to ensure the certification of pilots at a high level of performance and proficiency, consistent with
A) safety.
B) the time available.
C) their abilities.

227.	H213	CFI
The effectiveness of communication between instructor and student is measured by the
A) degree of dynamic, interrelated elements.
B) similarity between the idea transmitted and the idea received.
C) relationship between communicative and dynamic elements.

228.	H227	CFI
During oral quizzing in a given lesson, effective questions should
A) be brief and concise.
B) provide answers that can be expressed in a variety of ways.
C) divert the student's thoughts to subjects covered in previous lessons.

229.	H227	CFI
To be effective in oral quizzing during the conduct of a lesson, a question should
A) be of suitable difficulty for that stage of training.
B) include a combination of where, how, and why.
C) divert the student's thoughts to subjects covered in other lessons.

230.	H235	CFI
Student confidence tends to be destroyed if instructors
A) bluff whenever in doubt about some point.
B) continually identify student errors and failures.
C) direct and control the student's actions and behavior.

231.	H204	CFI
During the flight portion of a practical test, the examiner simulates complete loss of engine power by closing the throttle and announcing 'simulated engine failure'. What level of learning is being tested?
A) Application.
B) Correlation.
C) Understanding.

232.	H203	CFI
Insights, as applied to learning, involve a person's
A) association of learning with change.
B) grouping of associated perceptions into meaningful wholes.
C) ability to recognize the reason for learning a procedure.

233.	H203	CFI
Individuals make more progress learning if they have a clear objective. This is one feature of the principle of
A) primacy.
B) readiness.
C) willingness.

234.	H203	CFI
Which statement is true concerning motivations?
A) Motivations must be tangible to be effective.
B) Motivations may be very subtle and difficult to identify.
C) Negative motivations often are as effective as positive motivations.

235.	H206	CFI
Where is information for future use stored?
A) Sensory register.
B) Short-term memory.
C) Long-term memory.

236.	H202	CFI
The learning process may include some elements such as verbal, conceptual, and
A) habitual.
B) experiential.
C) problem solving.

237.	H203	CFI
Which is generally the more effective way for an instructor to properly motivate students?
A) Maintain pleasant personal relationships with students.
B) Provide positive motivations by the promise or achievement of rewards.
C) Reinforce their self-confidence by requiring no tasks beyond their ability to perform.

238.	H201	CFI
A change in behavior as a result of experience can be defined as
A) learning.
B) knowledge.
C) understanding.

239.	H206	CFI
Responses that produce a pleasurable return are called
A) reward.
B) praise.
C) positive feedback.

240.	H205	CFI
A learning plateau may be defined as the
A) point in the learning curve at which skill proficiency retrogresses.
B) normal leveling-off of an individual's learning rate.
C) achievement of the highest possible level of competence for a particular individual.

241.	H206	CFI
According to one theory, some forgetting is due to the practice of submerging an unpleasant experience into the subconscious. This is called
A) blanking.
B) immersion.
C) repression.

242.	H206	CFI
Which memory system processes input from the environment?
A) Working.
B) Long-term.
C) Sensory register.

243.	H205	CFI
The best way to prepare a student to perform a task is to
A) explain the purpose of the task.
B) provide a clear, step-by-step example.
C) give the student an outline of the task.

244.	H207	CFI
Which transfer of learning occurs when the performance of a maneuver interferes with the learning of another maneuver?
A) Adverse.
B) Positive.
C) Negative.

245.	H214	CFI
Probably the greatest single barrier to effective communication in the teaching process is a lack of
A) respect for the instructor.
B) personality harmony between instructor and student.
C) a common experience level between instructor and student.

246.	H203	CFI
Which factor affecting perception has a great influence on the total perceptual process?
A) Self-concept.
B) Goals and values.
C) Time and opportunity.

247.	H204	CFI
What level of knowledge is being tested if asked, 'What is the maneuvering speed of the aircraft listed in the owner's manual?'
A) Rote.
B) Application.
C) Understanding.

248.	H204	CFI
The educational objective levels for the cognitive domain are
A) receiving, responding, valuing, organization, and characterization...
B) knowledge, comprehension, application, analysis, synthesis, and evaluation.
C) perception, set, guided response mechanism, complex overt response, adaptation, and origination.

249.	H203	CFI
A basic need that affects all of a person's perceptions is the need to
A) maintain and enhance the organized self.
B) accomplish a higher level of satisfaction.
C) avoid areas that pose a threat to success.

250.	H203	CFI
What is the basis of all learning?
A) Perception.
B) Motivation.
C) Positive self-concept.

251.	H203	CFI
Which principle of learning implies that a student will learn more from the real thing than from a substitute?
A) Principle of effect.
B) Principle of primacy.
C) Principle of intensity.

252.	H203	CFI
An instructor may foster the development of insights by
A) helping the student acquire and maintain a favorable self-concept.
B) pointing out the attractive features of the activity to be learned.
C) keeping the rate of learning consistent so that it is predictable.

253.	H203	CFI
The mental grouping of affiliated perceptions is called
A) insights.
B) association.
C) conceptualization.

254.	H204	CFI
Which domain of learning deals with knowledge?
A) Cognitive.
B) Affective.
C) Psychomotor.

255.	H215	CFI
When has instruction taken place?
A) When all the required material has been presented.
B) When a procedure has been explained, and the desired student response has occurred.
C) When the student hears what is presented.

256.	H207	CFI
To ensure proper habits and correct techniques during training, an instructor should
A) use the building block technique of instruction.
B) repeat subject matter the student has already learned.
C) introduce challenging material to continually motivate the student.

257.	H203	CFI
The principle that is based on the emotional reaction of the learner is the principle of
A) effect.
B) primacy.
C) intensity.

258.	L10	CFI
During training flights, an instructor should interject realistic distractions to determine if a student can
A) learn despite stressful conditions.
B) maintain aircraft control while his/her attention is diverted.
C) perform maneuvers using the integrated method of flight instruction.

259.	J08	CFI
(Refer to figure 47.) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas?
A) 3,000 feet AGL.
B) 3,000 feet above airport.
C) 4,000 feet above airport.

260.	J09	CFI
(Refer to figure 45.) What are the requirements for operating in the alert area (area 6) just west of Corpus Christi International Airport (area 3)?
A) Contact with approach control on frequency 120.9 is required.
B) Prior permission must be obtained from the controlling agency.
C) There are no requirements, but pilots should be extremely cautious due to extensive student training.

261.	J10	CFI
Local Airport Advisory service is usually available at all airports
A) with operating control towers.
B) where a Flight Service Station is located on the airport.
C) located in Class C airspace and within 10 NM of the primary airport.

262.	J09	CFI
When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot
A) must operate only when military activity is not being conducted.
B) should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
C) must obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.

263.	J09	CFI
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
A) filed an IFR flight plan.
B) received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
C) received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

264.	J08	CFI
To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must
A) monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
B) contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
C) secure prior approval from ATC before takeoff at the airport.

265.	J08	CFI
(Refer to figure 47.) What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?
A) 5 miles.
B) 10 miles.
C) 15 miles.

266.	J11	CFI
(Refer to figure 44.) What minimum avionics equipment is necessary to operate in the airspace up to 3,000 feet MSL over Northwest Airport (area 2)?
A) None required.
B) Transponder and encoding altimeter.
C) Two-way radio communications equipment, transponder, and encoding altimeter.

267.	J08	CFI
Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is
A) 14,500 feet MSL.
B) 18,000 feet MSL.
C) 18,000 feet AGL.

268.	J08	CFI
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
A) 10,000 feet MSL.
B) 14,500 feet MSL.
C) 18,000 feet MSL.

269.	J08	CFI
(Refer to figure 46.) What is the ceiling of the Class C airspace surrounding San Jose International Airport (area 2)?
A) 2,500 feet AGL.
B) 4,000 feet MSL.
C) 6,000 feet MSL.

270.	J08	CFI
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A) The airspace designation normally will not change.
B) The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
C) The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

271.	J08	CFI
(Refer to figure 44.) Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over Saginaw Airport (area 1)?
A) Surface.
B) 700 feet AGL.
C) 4,000 feet MSL.

272.	J08	CFI
(Refer to figure 45.) Assuming owner permission, what minimum avionics equipment is required for operation into Cuddihy Airport (area 8)?
A) Two-way radio communications equipment.
B) None, if altitude remains at or below 1,200 feet MSL.
C) Two-way radio communications equipment and transponder with encoding altimeter.

273.	H51	CFI
During climbing flight using a turbocharged airplane, the manifold pressure will remain approximately constant until the
A) engine's critical altitude is reached.
B) airplane's service ceiling is reached.
C) waste gate is fully open and the turbine is operating at minimum speed.

274.	H78	CFI
A one-per-revolution vibration in a gyroplane indicates which condition?
A) Rotor blades out of balance.
B) One rotor blade out of track.
C) Possible onset of retreating blade stall.

275.	H306	CFI
An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would
A) experience avionics equipment failure.
B) probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.
C) probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

276.	H754	CFI
A high-frequency vibration in flight would most likely indicate potential trouble with
A) the balance of the main rotor blades.
B) a piston engine malfunction.
C) worn parts in the main rotor system.

277.	O170	CFI
Which will improve the response time of a hot air balloon?
A) Increased weight.
B) Less-dense ambient air.
C) Increased fuel flow through burner.

278.	H305	CFI
Which type of flap creates the greatest change in pitching moment?
A) Plain.
B) Split.
C) Fowler.

279.	H706	CFI
What is the primary purpose of the freewheeling unit?
A) It allows the engine to be started without driving the main rotor system.
B) It provides disengagement of the engine from the rotor system for autorotation purposes.
C) It provides speed reduction between the engine, main rotor system, and tail rotor system.

280.	H305	CFI
(Refer to figure 23.) Which is a slotted flap?
A) 1.
B) 3.
C) 4.

281.	H766	CFI
Low speed blade flap on a gyroplane is a result of
A) taxiing too fast.
B) rotor blade pitch set too high.
C) the rotor blades being too heavy.

282.	H306	CFI
Concerning the advantages of an aircraft generator or alternator, select the true statement.
A) A generator always provides more electrical current than an alternator.
B) An alternator provides more electrical power at lower engine RPM than a generator.
C) A generator charges the battery during low engine RPM; therefore, the battery has less chance to become fully discharged, as often occurs with an alternator.

283.	H312	CFI
A possible result of using the emergency alternate source of static pressure inside the cabin of an unpressurized airplane is the
A) airspeed indicator may indicate less than normal.
B) altimeter may indicate an altitude lower than the actual altitude being flown.
C) altimeter may indicate an altitude higher than the actual altitude being flown.

284.	H307	CFI
The low temperature that causes carburetor ice in an engine equipped with a float-type carburetor is normally the result of the
A) compression of air at the carburetor venturi.
B) freezing temperature of the air entering the carburetor.
C) vaporization of fuel and expansion of air in the carburetor.

285.	H301	CFI
Which statement is true regarding propeller efficiency? Propeller efficiency is the
A) ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.
B) actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
C) difference between the geometric pitch of the propeller and its effective pitch.

286.	H307	CFI
During which stroke of a reciprocating engine is the gaseous mixture expanding within the cylinder?
A) Power.
B) Intake.
C) Compression.

287.	H307	CFI
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
A) measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system.
B) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the throttle valve.
C) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing a decrease in air pressure.

288.	H314	CFI
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
A) a left turn is entered from a west heading.
B) an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
C) an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

289.	H314	CFI
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
A) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
B) The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
C) The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

290.	O170	CFI
The best way to determine burner BTU availability is the
A) burner sound.
B) tank quantity.
C) fuel pressure gauge.

291.	H312	CFI
During power-off stalls with flaps full down, the stall occurs and the pointer on the airspeed indicator shows a speed less than the minimum limit of the white arc on the indicator. This is most probably due to
A) a low density altitude.
B) a malfunction in the pitot-static system.
C) installation error in the pitot-static system.

292.	H307	CFI
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will
A) increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.
B) result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans.
C) cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

293.	H307	CFI
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
A) fuel strainer drain.
B) lowest point in the fuel system.
C) fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

294.	H307	CFI
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
A) a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
B) a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
C) an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.

295.	H307	CFI
Which statement is true regarding fouling of the spark plugs of an aircraft engine?
A) Spark plug fouling results from operating with an excessively rich mixture.
B) Carbon fouling of the spark plugs is caused primarily by operating an engine at excessively high cylinder head temperatures.
C) Excessive heat in the combustion chamber of a cylinder causes oil to form on the center electrode of a spark plug and this fouls the plug.

296.	H307	CFI
As flight altitude increases, what will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control?
A) The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases.
B) The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases.
C) The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant.

297.	H310	CFI
Proper mixture control and better economy in the operation of a fuel injected engine can be achieved best by use of
A) a fuel-flow gauge.
B) an exhaust gas temperature indicator.
C) the recommended manifold and RPM setting for a particular altitude.

298.	H307	CFI
Detonation in an aircraft engine is most likely to occur whenever the
A) fuel/air ratio is such that the mixture burns extremely slow.
B) engine is operated under conditions which cause the fuel mixture to burn instantaneously.
C) fuel being used is of a higher grade than recommended by the engine manufacturer.

299.	H307	CFI
Fuel injection systems, compared to carburetor systems, are generally considered to be
A) just as susceptible to impact icing.
B) more susceptible to evaporative icing.
C) less susceptible to icing unless visible moisture is present.

300.	O170	CFI
What is the weight of propane?
A) 4.2 pounds per gallon.
B) 6.0 pounds per gallon.
C) 7.5 pounds per gallon.

301.	H301	CFI
A propeller rotating clockwise, as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the aircraft to the
A) right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
B) left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.
C) left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

302.	H308	CFI
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
A) prevents the portion of the blade near the hub to stall during cruising flight.
B) permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
C) permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

303.	H313	CFI
Which instrument would be affected by excessively low pressure in the airplane's vacuum system?
A) Heading indicator.
B) Airspeed indicator.
C) Pressure altimeter.

304.	O170	CFI
What effect does ambient temperature have on propane tank pressure?
A) It has no effect.
B) As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure decreases.
C) As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure increases.

305.	H592	CFI
On a multiengine airplane with engines which rotate clockwise, the critical engine is the
A) left engine, because the right engine center of thrust is closer to the centerline of the fuselage.
B) right engine, because the left engine center of thrust is closer to the centerline of the fuselage.
C) left engine, because the right engine center of thrust is farther away from the centerline of the fuselage.

306.	H312	CFI
What airspeed indicator marking identifies the maximum structural cruising speed of an aircraft?
A) Red radial line.
B) Upper limit of the green arc.
C) Upper limit of the yellow arc.

307.	H594	CFI
When one engine fails on a twin-engine airplane, the resulting performance loss
A) may reduce the rate of climb by 80 percent or more.
B) reduces cruise indicated airspeed by 50 percent or more.
C) is approximately 50 percent since 50 percent of the normally available thrust is lost.

308.	H308	CFI
Propeller slip is the difference between the
A) geometric pitch and blade angle of the propeller.
B) geometric pitch and the effective pitch of the propeller.
C) plane of rotation of the propeller and forward velocity of the aircraft.

309.	I05	CFI
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied upon to determine pitch attitude before recovery?
A) Airspeed indicator and altimeter.
B) Turn indicator and vertical speed indicator.
C) Vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicator.

310.	L15	CFI
What precautions should be taken with respect to aircraft oxygen systems?
A) Ensure that only medical oxygen has been used to replenish oxygen containers.
B) Prohibit smoking while in an aircraft equipped with a portable oxygen system.
C) Ensure that industrial oxygen has not been used to replenish the system.

311.	L52	CFI
Which statement is true regarding preheating of an aircraft during cold-weather operations?
A) The cockpit, as well as the engine, should be preheated.
B) The cockpit area should not be preheated with portable heaters.
C) Hot air should be blown directly at the engine through the air intakes.

312.	N20	CFI
The primary purpose of spoilers on gliders is to
A) decrease lift.
B) decrease stall speed.
C) control speed at steep glide angles.

313.	N22	CFI
The advantage of total energy compensators is that this system
A) adds the effect of stick thermals to the total energy produced by thermals.
B) reduces climb and dive errors on variometer indications caused by airspeed changes.
C) compensates for air pressure changes while climbing or descending.

314.	I05	CFI
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-level flight?
A) Altimeter.
B) Attitude indicator.
C) Airspeed indicator.

315.	O170	CFI
The valve located on each tank that indicates the tank is filled to 80 percent capacity is the
A) main tank valve.
B) vapor-bleed valve.
C) fuel pressure valve.

316.	O170	CFI
How should a balloon fuel system be checked for leaks prior to flight?
A) Look, listen, and smell.
B) Check for unusual discoloration on burner coils.
C) Cover all fittings and hoses with soapy water and look for small bubbles.

317.	H705	CFI
Can the tail rotor produce thrust to the left?
A) No; only thrust to the right can be produced, causing tail movement to the left.
B) Yes; primarily so that hovering turns can be accomplished to the right.
C) Yes; primarily to counteract drag of the transmission during autorotation.

318.	O220	CFI
Propane is used in a balloon fuel system because it
A) is slow to vaporize.
B) provides natural pressure for fuel movement.
C) contains methanol for clean burning and improved performance.

319.	O220	CFI
Why should methanol be added to propane fuel?
A) Helps detect leaks in the fuel system.
B) Helps prevent moisture from forming in the fuel system.
C) Increases pressure and boiling temperature for operations in colder climates.

320.	H767	CFI
Which may lead to a power push-over in a gyroplane?
A) Low speed.
B) Rotor force is removed.
C) Decreasing power too quickly.

321.	H767	CFI
Which maneuver would cause the unloading the rotor system,and result in a possible power pushover?
A) Just prior to landing
B) During a steep descent.
C) After a pushover from a steep climb.

322.	J03	CFI
A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates that
A) 3,000 feet of runway remain.
B) 1,000 feet of runway remain.
C) one-half of the runway remains.

323.	J03	CFI
Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
A) If below the glidepath, the near bars will be red and the far bars white.
B) If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red and the far bars will appear white.
C) If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white.

324.	J03	CFI
A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by
A) four red lights.
B) one red light and three white lights.
C) one white light and three red lights.

325.	J27	CFI
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
A) remaining below the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
B) extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
C) being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

326.	J27	CFI
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A) Inward, upward, and around each tip.
B) Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
C) Outward, upward, and around each tip.

327.	J13	CFI
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within
A) Class B airspace.
B) 10 miles of any airport.
C) 5 miles of a controlled airport.

328.	J13	CFI
(Refer to figure 54.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is
A) left-hand for Rwy 17 and right-hand for Rwy 35.
B) right-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 9.
C) left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.

329.	J13	CFI
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
A) 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
B) to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
C) to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.

330.	J11	CFI
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's
A) true course.
B) ground track.
C) magnetic heading.

331.	J11	CFI
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
A) weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.
B) the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
C) the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

332.	J11	CFI
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
A) 25 miles.
B) 20 miles.
C) 10 miles.

333.	J05	CFI
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
A) may continue taxiing.
B) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
C) should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

334.	J05	CFI
What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?
A) That area is restricted solely to taxi operations.
B) That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.
C) That portion of the runway is the designated touchdown zone.

335.	J05	CFI
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
A) 008° and 026° true.
B) 080° and 260° true.
C) 080° and 260° magnetic.

336.	J12	CFI
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
A) Select 7700 on your transponder, fly a normal traffic pattern, and land.
B) Flash your landing lights and make shallow banks in opposite directions while circling the airport.
C) Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

337.	J05	CFI
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
A) Indicates direction to take-off runway.
B) Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

338.	J05	CFI
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
A) Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
B) Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
C) Denotes intersecting runways.

339.	J05	CFI
What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?
A) Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
B) Holds aircraft short of the runway.
C) Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway.

340.	J05	CFI
What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?
A) Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
B) Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.
C) Provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

341.	J05	CFI
What is the purpose of No Entry sign?
A) Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.
B) Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection.
C) Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

342.	J05	CFI
What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?
A) Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.
B) Delineates entrance to runway from a taxiway.
C) Delineates beginning of runway available for landing when pavement is aligned with runway on approach side.

343.	J05	CFI
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
A) Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
B) Identifies direction to take-off runways.
C) Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.

344.	J05	CFI
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
A) Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
B) Provides general taxiing direction to named runway.
C) Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.

345.	J05	CFI
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A) Indicates direction to take-off runway.
B) Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

346.	J31	CFI
Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
A) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
B) Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
C) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

347.	J31	CFI
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
A) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
B) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
C) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

348.	J31	CFI
A rapid acceleration can create the illusion of being in a
A) left turn.
B) noseup attitude.
C) nosedown attitude.

349.	J31	CFI
If an individual has gone scuba diving which has not required a controlled ascent and will be flying to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the recommended waiting time is at least
A) 4 hours.
B) 12 hours.
C) 24 hours.

350.	H350	CFI
How can smoking affect a pilot?
A) Can decrease night vision by up to 50 percent.
B) Reduces the oxygen-carrying capability of the blood.
C) Creates additional carbon dioxide gases in the body which often leads to hyperventilation.

351.	J31	CFI
During a climb to 18,000 feet, the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains the same.

352.	J31	CFI
Hyperventilation results in
A) a lack of carbon dioxide in the body.
B) breathing too rapidly causing a lack of oxygen.
C) a need to increase the flow of supplemental oxygen.

353.	H351	CFI
What suggestion could you make to students who are experiencing motion sickness?
A) Recommend taking medication to prevent motion sickness.
B) Have the students lower their head, shut their eyes, and take deep breaths.
C) Tell the students to avoid unnecessary head movement and to keep their eyes on a point outside the aircraft.

354.	J31	CFI
Hypoxia is the result of
A) excessive nitrogen in the bloodstream.
B) reduced barometric pressures at altitude.
C) decreasing amount of oxygen as your altitude increases.

355.	O220	CFI
(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the maximum payload for a balloon flying at 1,500 feet at an ambient temperature of 87 °F.
A) 515 pounds.
B) 565 pounds.
C) 585 pounds.

356.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 29.) What is the approximate glide distance?
Height above terrain	10,500 ft
Tailwind	20 kts
A) 24 miles.
B) 26 miles.
C) 28 miles.

357.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 28.) Determine the approximate total distance required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
Temperature	25 °C
Pressure altitude	2,500 ft
Surface	asphalt
Weight	5,500 lb
Wind	2 kts tailwind
A) 2,228 feet.
B) 2,294 feet.
C) 2,462 feet.

358.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 30.) Determine the approximate crosswind component.
Landing Rwy	03
Wind	060° at 35 kts
A) 12 knots.
B) 18 knots.
C) 22 knots.

359.	O220	CFI
What constitutes the payload of a balloon?
A) Weight of the balloon and equipment.
B) Total weight of passengers, cargo, and fuel.
C) Difference between empty weight and maximum certified gross weight.

360.	N34	CFI
(Refer to figure 38.) A glider is flying from A to C. With a normal L/D ratio of 20:1 and a constant airspeed of 40 MPH, what minimum altitude AGL is needed at B to arrive over C at 800 feet AGL with no sinking air?
A) 3,520 feet.
B) 4,320 feet.
C) 6,080 feet.

361.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 30.) Determine the approximate crosswind component.
Landing Rwy	22
Wind	260° at 23 kts
A) 10 knots.
B) 15 knots.
C) 17 knots.

362.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 27.) What indicated airspeed at 3,000 feet would result in the greatest increase in altitude for a given distance?
A) 94 KIAS.
B) 113 KIAS.
C) 115 KIAS.

363.	O220	CFI
(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the maximum weight allowable for a pilot and passengers for a balloon flight at approximately 2,000 feet with a standard temperature. Launch with 20 gallons of propane.
A) 631 pounds.
B) 641 pounds.
C) 701 pounds.

364.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 31.) What is the total landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Temperature	15 °C
Pressure altitude	4,000 ft
Weight	3,000 lb
Headwind	22 kts
A) 1,250 feet.
B) 1,175 feet.
C) 1,050 feet.

365.	N21	CFI
Which is true about the effect on a glider's performance by the addition of ballast or weight?
A) The glide ratio at a given airspeed will increase.
B) A higher airspeed is required to obtain the same glide ratio as when lightly loaded.
C) The heavier the glider is loaded, the less the glide ratio will be at all airspeeds.

366.	H616	CFI
In a twin-engine airplane, the single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude at which VYSE will produce
A) 50 feet per minute rate of climb.
B) 100 feet per minute rate of climb.
C) 500 feet per minute rate of climb.

367.	H317	CFI
Which statement is true regarding takeoff performance with high density altitude conditions?
A) The acceleration rate will increase since the lighter air creates less drag.
B) The acceleration rate is slower because the engine and propeller efficiency is reduced.
C) A higher-than-normal indicated airspeed is required to produce sufficient lift since the air is less dense.

368.	O150	CFI
What causes a gas balloon to start a descent if a cold air mass is encountered and the envelope becomes cooled?
A) Contraction of the gas.
B) A temperature differential.
C) A barometric pressure differential.

369.	O220	CFI
The part of a balloon that bears the weight of the balloon and its payload is the
A) load tapes.
B) load cables.
C) envelope material.

370.	H78	CFI
How does temperature and weight affect the V_ne of a helicopter?
A) V_ne increases as temperature and weight increase.
B) V_ne decreases as temperature and weight increase.
C) V_ne decreases as temperature increases and weight decreases.

371.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 24.) Determine the density altitude.
Airport elevation	3,795 ft
OAT	24 °C
Altimeter setting	29.70 inches Hg
A) 5,900 feet.
B) 5,700 feet.
C) 4,000 feet.

372.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 26.) Determine the takeoff distance required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
Temperature	23 °C
Pressure altitude	3,000 ft
Weight	2,400 lb
Headwind	15 kts
A) 653 feet.
B) 718 feet.
C) 754 feet.

373.	H317	CFI
(Refer to figure 25.) What would be the indicated stall speed in a 60° banked turn with the gear and flaps up?
A) 110 KIAS.
B) 117 KIAS.
C) 121 KIAS.

374.	H593	CFI
When operating a light multiengine airplane at V_MC, the pilot should expect performance to be sufficient to maintain
A) heading.
B) heading and altitude.
C) heading, altitude, and be able to climb at 50 feet per minute.

375.	H527	CFI
It is possible to fly an aircraft just clear of the ground at a slightly slower airspeed than that required to sustain level flight at higher altitudes. This is the result of
A) interference of the ground surface with the airflow patterns about the aircraft in flight.
B) a cushioning effect of the air as it is trapped between the ground and the descending aircraft.
C) ground interference with the static pressure system which produces false indications on the airspeed indicator.

376.	J29	CFI
What can a pilot expect when landing at an airport located in the mountains?
A) Higher true airspeed and longer landing distance.
B) Higher indicated airspeed and shorter landing distance.
C) Faster groundspeed and increased aircraft performance.

377.	H78	CFI
As altitude increases, the V_NE of most helicopters
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains the same.

378.	H593	CFI
Which is true regarding the operation of a multiengine airplane with one engine inoperative?
A) Banking toward the operating engine increases V_MC.
B) Banking toward the inoperative engine increases V_MC.
C) V_MC is a designed performance factor which must be proven during type certification and will not change as long as the ball is centered with appropriate rudder pressure.

379.	H749	CFI
Ground resonance is most likely to occur when
A) there is a sudden change in velocity of the plane of rotation.
B) a series of shocks cause the rotor system to become out of balance.
C) initial ground contact is made with a combination of high gross weight and low RPM.

380.	H766	CFI
When landing a gyroplane in crosswind conditions, proper technique requires that the
A) longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
B) direction of motion and heading coincide with runway direction.
C) lateral axis of the gyroplane be parallel to the gyroplane's direction of motion.

381.	H727	CFI
To taxi on the surface in a safe efficient manner, one should use the cyclic pitch to
A) control taxi speed.
B) maintain heading during crosswind conditions.
C) correct for drift during crosswind conditions.

382.	H745	CFI
What action should be taken if the antitorque system fails during forward flight?
A) Immediately apply additional throttle while slightly lowering the collective.
B) Enter a normal autorotation by lowering the collective and rolling off the throttle.
C) Immediately and smoothly apply aft cyclic.

383.	H79	CFI
Which situation would require the highest power setting to hover?
A) Headed downwind in moderate windspeeds.
B) Headed crosswind in moderate windspeeds.
C) Over tall grass in zero wind conditions.

384.	H703	CFI
After attaining effective translational lift during a normal takeoff, additional forward cyclic is required as the airspeed increases. Why is this action required?
A) To counteract gyroscopic precession.
B) To counteract the increase in lift which would result in the nose rising.
C) To counteract the dissymmetry of lift which causes the helicopter to roll to the left.

385.	H748	CFI
What are the major indications of an incipient retreating blade stall situation, in order of occurrence?
A) Low-frequency vibration, pitchup of the nose, and a tendency for the aircraft to roll.
B) High-frequency vibration, pitchdown of the nose, and a tendency for the aircraft to roll.
C) Slow pitchup of the nose, high-frequency vibration, and a tendency for the aircraft to roll.

386.	H711	CFI
Which is true concerning gyroplane operations?
A) Rotor RPM will decrease during a vertical descent regardless of weight or density altitude.
B) A gyroplane can take off from any area in which it can safely land.
C) Minimum level flight speed is established when all available power is used to maintain constant altitude and airspeed.

387.	H762	CFI
If the gyroplane's CG is below the propeller thrust line, which direction will the application of power cause the nose to move?
A) The nose will pitch up.
B) The nose will pitch down.
C) The nose will not move.

388.	H745	CFI
The addition of power in a settling-with-power situation produces an
A) increase of airspeed.
B) even greater rate of descent.
C) increase in cyclic control effectiveness.

389.	H767	CFI
Which pilot action will help reduce pilot induced oscillation in a gyroplane?
A) Avoid flight at high speeds.
B) Increase power if nose pitches down.
C) Prior to a climb, increase pitch attitude before increasing power.

390.	H766	CFI
In order to maintain level flight (laterally) as airspeed increases on climbout after takeoff in a gyroplane, the pilot will have to increase
A) rudder pressure to the left.
B) cyclic pressure to the right.
C) rudder and cyclic pressure to the left.

391.	H766	CFI
Which is true concerning taxi procedures in a gyroplane?
A) Keeping the rotor system level creates less lift and more stability.
B) Cyclic stick should be positioned slightly aft of neutral when taxiing.
C) Rotor blades should not be turning when taxiing over a rough surface.

392.	H744	CFI
During a pinnacle approach to a rooftop heliport under conditions of turbulence and high wind, the pilot should make a
A) shallow approach, maintaining a constant line of descent with cyclic applications.
B) normal approach, maintaining a slower-than-normal rate of descent with cyclic applications.
C) steeper-than-normal approach, maintaining the desired angle of descent with collective applications.

393.	H766	CFI
Rotor torque is a concern in gyroplanes only during
A) prerotation or clutch engagement.
B) maneuvers requiring high rotor RPM.
C) maximum performance climbs and go-arounds requiring higher engine RPM.

394.	H739	CFI
Which statement pertaining to rapid decelerations is most accurate?
A) The primary purpose of this maneuver is to lose effective translational lift.
B) The rotor RPM will normally tend to increase during the entry and tend to decrease during the completion of the maneuver.
C) The nose of the helicopter will normally tend to yaw to the right during the entry and tend to yaw to the left during the completion of the maneuver.

395.	H742	CFI
When making a slope landing, the cyclic pitch control should be used to
A) lower the downslope skid to the ground.
B) hold the upslope skid against the slope.
C) place the rotor disc parallel to the slope.

396.	H746	CFI
During a flare autorotative descent and landing, additional right pedal is required to maintain heading after initial collective pitch is applied. This action is necessary because of
A) gyroscopic precession.
B) the reduction in rotor RPM.
C) translating tendency of helicopters during autorotation.

397.	H746	CFI
When performing a touchdown autorotation, what action is most appropriate?
A) Anti-torque pedals should remain neutral after ground contact.
B) Skids should be in a longitudinally level attitude at touchdown.
C) Aft cyclic application after touchdown is desirable to decrease ground run.

398.	N31	CFI
GIVEN:
Maximum auto winch tow speed	69 MPH
Surface wind	5 MPH
Wind gradient	5 MPH
What should the auto winch speed be when a glider reaches an altitude of 200 feet?
A) 44 MPH.
B) 49 MPH.
C) 59 MPH.

399.	N30	CFI
What would be the approximate tensile strength of a rope with a 1,000 pound tensile strength if a knot develops in it?
A) 500 pounds.
B) 800 pounds.
C) 1,000 pounds.

400.	N34	CFI
When making an off-field landing, it is recommended that the landing be accomplished
A) in pastures which are seldom cultivated.
B) uphill, if possible, regardless of the wind direction.
C) in cultivated fields where the crops have not yet been harvested.

401.	N30	CFI
What could result if a glider pilot releases while in the low-tow position during an aerotow?
A) Nose of the glider would tend to pitch up after release.
B) Tow ring may strike and damage the glider after release.
C) Glider may be forced into the towplane's wake turbulence.

402.	N31	CFI
During a ground launch, how is the airspeed of a glider increased?
A) Raise the nose.
B) Lower the nose.
C) Increase speed of vehicle or winch.

403.	N32	CFI
Unless adequate speed control is maintained during the turn to base and the final approach for a landing into the wind, which would most likely occur if a steep wind gradient existed?
A) The desired landing spot would be undershot or the glider would stall.
B) The airspeed on final approach would increase, causing the glider to overshoot the desired landing spot.
C) The wingtip on the outside of the turn would stall before the wingtip on the inside of the turn.

404.	N32	CFI
If swirling dust, leaves, or debris indicate a strong thermal on the final approach to a landing, it is recommended that the glider pilot
A) open the spoilers and reduce the airspeed.
B) close the spoilers and increase the airspeed.
C) open the spoilers and maintain a constant airspeed.

405.	N33	CFI
With regard to two or more gliders flying in the same thermal, which statement is true?
A) All turns should be to the right.
B) Turns should be in the same direction as the highest glider.
C) Turns should be made in the same direction as the first glider to enter the thermal.

406.	N34	CFI
What is the suggested speed to fly when passing through lift with no intention to work the lift?
A) Best glide speed.
B) Minimum sink speed.
C) Best lift/drag speed.

407.	N31	CFI
During an autolaunch, the pitch angle of the glider should not exceed
A) 10° at 50 feet, 20° at 100 feet, and 45° at 200 feet.
B) 15° at 50 feet, 20° at 100 feet, and 40° at 200 feet.
C) 15° at 50 feet, 30° at 100 feet, and 45° at 200 feet.

408.	N21	CFI
When flying into a strong headwind on a long glide back to the airport, the recommended speed to use is the
A) best glide speed.
B) minimum sink speed.
C) best lift/drag speed plus half the estimated windspeed at the glider's flight altitude.

409.	N21	CFI
The reason for retaining water ballast while thermals are strong and dumping the water when thermals weaken is to
A) decrease forward speed.
B) increase forward speed.
C) decrease the rate of descent.

410.	P04	CFI
Below pressure height, each 5 °F of positive superheat amounts to approximately
A) 1 percent of net lift.
B) 1 percent of static lift.
C) 2 percent of gross lift.

411.	P05	CFI
The main advantage of internal suspension in an airship is that it
A) increases stability.
B) provides better load distribution.
C) absorbs side and longitudinal forces.

412.	P04	CFI
The difference between the weight of the air being displaced and the weight of the lifting gas is
A) gross lift.
B) useful lift.
C) design lift.

413.	P11	CFI
When operating an airship with the ballonet air valves in the automatic forward position, the aft valve lock should not be engaged with either aft damper open because
A) ballonet over-inflation and rupture could occur.
B) the airship will enter an excessive nose-high attitude.
C) envelope pressure will increase, causing possible damage to the air lines.

414.	P01	CFI
How does an airship pilot know when pressure height has been reached?
A) Liquid in the gas and air manometers will rise above normal levels.
B) Liquid in the gas manometer will rise and liquid in the air manometer(s) will fall below normal levels.
C) Liquid in the gas manometer will fall and liquid in the air manometer(s) will rise above normal levels.

415.	P04	CFI
When an airship is at pressure height and superheat increases, constant pressure must be maintained by valving
A) gas from the envelope.
B) air from the envelope.
C) air from the ballonets.

416.	O220	CFI
Burner efficiency of a hot air balloon decreases approximately what percent for each 1,000 feet above MSL?
A) 4 percent.
B) 8 percent.
C) 15 percent.

417.	P11	CFI
What is one indication of a serious envelope rip in an airship?
A) Drop in air pressure.
B) Increase in gas pressure.
C) Difficulty in controlling altitude.

418.	O220	CFI
The purpose of the preheating coil used in hot air balloons is to
A) prevent ice from forming in the fuel lines.
B) warm the fuel tanks for more efficient fuel flow.
C) vaporize the fuel for more efficient burner operation.

419.	O30	CFI
The practice of allowing the ground crew to lift a balloon into the air is
A) a safe way to reduce stress on the envelope.
B) unsafe because it can lead to a sudden landing at an inopportune site just after lift-off.
C) considered to be good practice, particularly when obstacles must be cleared shortly after lift-off.

420.	O220	CFI
Prior to a high-wind landing in a balloon, occupants should be briefed to
A) kneel on the floor, face aft, and hang on to the basket.
B) crouch in basket, face direction of landing, hold on in two places, and stay in basket.
C) crouch on the floor in the center of the basket and jump out as soon as initial ground contact is made.

421.	O220	CFI
If you are in a balloon over a heavily wooded area with no open fields in the vicinity and have only 10 minutes of fuel remaining, you should
A) stay low and keep flying in hopes you will find an open field.
B) climb as high as possible to see where the nearest landing field is.
C) land in the trees while you have sufficient fuel for a controlled landing.

422.	O220	CFI
What is one procedure for relighting the burner while in flight?
A) Open the blast valve full open and light the pilot light.
B) Open another tank valve, open the blast valve, and light the main jet using reduced flow.
C) Close the tank valves, vent the fuel lines, reopen the tank valves, and light the pilot light.

423.	O220	CFI
What is the recommended ascent rate upon initial launch of a balloon?
A) Maximum ascent to altitude to avoid low-level thermals.
B) Shallow ascent to take maximum advantage of lighter winds.
C) A moderate rate of ascent to determine wind directions at different altitudes.

424.	O220	CFI
What is a potential hazard in a balloon during a climb that exceeds maximum rate?
A) Envelope may collapse.
B) Deflation port may be forced open.
C) Rapid flow of air may extinguish the burner and pilot light.

425.	O220	CFI
If powerlines become a factor during a balloon flight, a pilot should know that
A) it is safer to contact the lines than chance ripping.
B) contact with powerlines creates no great hazard for a balloon.
C) it is better to chance ripping at 25 feet above the ground than contacting powerlines.

426.	O220	CFI
In a balloon, best fuel economy in level flight can be accomplished by
A) evenly-spaced, short blasts of heat.
B) long blasts of heat, spaced as necessary.
C) noting the pyrometer and remaining at a constant temperature.

427.	O220	CFI
What procedure is recommended when confronted with the necessity of having to land a balloon in turbulent conditions?
A) Land in the center of the largest available field.
B) Land in any available lake close to the upwind shore.
C) Land in trees to absorb shock forces and cushion the landing.

428.	O220	CFI
How should a roundout from a moderate-rate ascent to level flight be made?
A) Vent at altitude and add heat upon settling back down to altitude.
B) Reduce the amount of heat gradually as the balloon approaches altitude.
C) Cool the envelope by venting and add heat just before arriving at the desired altitude.

429.	P03	CFI
If all engine power is lost during flight, an airship should be
A) brought to a condition of equilibrium as soon as possible and free-ballooned.
B) trimmed nose-heavy to use the airship's negative dynamic lift to fly the airship down to the landing site.
C) trimmed nose-light to use the airship's positive dynamic lift to control the angle and rate of descent to the landing site.

430.	O30	CFI
What is the relationship of false lift to the wind? False lift
A) exists only if the surface winds are calm.
B) increases if the vertical velocity of a balloon increases.
C) decreases as the wind accelerates a balloon to the same speed as the wind.

431.	O30	CFI
For a hot air balloon, the weigh-off procedure is helpful because the
A) pilot can adjust the altimeter to the correct setting.
B) ground crew can assure that downwind obstacles are clear.
C) pilot will learn what the equilibrium conditions are prior to being committed to fly.

432.	O220	CFI
What action is most appropriate when an envelope over-temperature condition occurs?
A) Land as soon as practicable.
B) Descend and allow envelope to cool before landing.
C) Throw all unnecessary equipment overboard in order to lighten the load.

433.	H419	CFI
It may be possible to make changes in the direction of flight of a hot air balloon by
A) using the maneuvering vent.
B) operating at different flight altitudes.
C) flying a constant atmospheric pressure gradient.

434.	O220	CFI
The recommended size for a balloon launch site should be
A) 500 feet on the downwind side.
B) twice the height of the balloon.
C) 100 feet for every 1 knot of wind.

435.	O170	CFI
Prior to balloon flight on a cold, winter day, it may be necessary to preheat propane tanks because
A) ice may have formed in the lines to the burners.
B) the temperature of liquid propane controls burner pressure during combustion.
C) propane needs to be at a temperature which will allow it to go from a liquid to a gaseous state.

436.	H431	CFI
What should a pilot do if a small hole is seen in the fabric of a balloon during inflation?
A) Continue the inflation and make a mental note of the location of the hole for later repair.
B) Instruct a ground crew member to inspect the hole and, if under 5 inches in length, continue the inflation.
C) Consult the flight manual to determine if the hole is within acceptable damage limits established for the balloon being flown.

437.	O220	CFI
All fuel tanks should be fired during preflight to determine
A) if there are any leaks in the tanks.
B) burner pressure and condition of the valves.
C) if the pilot light functions properly on each tank.

438.	P11	CFI
A heavy airship, flying dynamically with air ballasted forward to overcome a climbing tendency and slowed down for a weigh-off prior to landing, will be very nose heavy. This condition can be corrected prior to landing by
A) ballasting air aft.
B) discharging forward ballast.
C) dumping fuel from the forward tanks.

439.	O220	CFI
The windspeed is such that it is necessary to deflate the envelope as rapidly as possible during a landing. When should the deflation port be opened?
A) Just prior to ground contact.
B) The instant the basket contacts the surface.
C) As the balloon skips off the surface the first time and all ballast has been discharged.

440.	P11	CFI
Which takeoff procedure is considered to be most hazardous for an airship?
A) Not using an up-ship takeoff when the airship is more than 200 pounds heavy.
B) Maintaining 50 percent of the maximum permissible positive angle of inclination.
C) Maintaining a negative angle of inclination during a wheel takeoff after elevator response is adequate for controllability.

441.	P11	CFI
The purpose of a ground weigh-off for an airship is to determine
A) available lift.
B) static and/or trim condition.
C) trim angle necessary to make an up-ship takeoff.

442.	P11	CFI
Which action is necessary in order to perform a normal descent in an airship?
A) Valve gas from the envelope.
B) Take air into the aft ballonet.
C) Valve air from the forward ballonet.

443.	P11	CFI
When checking pressure height of an airship during a climb, the dampers should be
A) opened.
B) closed.
C) opened aft and closed forward.

444.	P11	CFI
Dampers should normally be kept closed during a climb to altitude because any air blown into the system would
A) decrease the volume of gas within the envelope.
B) increase the amount of air to be valved, resulting in a slower rate of ascent.
C) increase the amount of gas to be valved, preventing the airship from ascending too fast.

445.	P11	CFI
What action is required to dynamically trim an airship that is in even static trim and equilibrium during a weigh-off?
A) Transfer air aft.
B) Increase airspeed.
C) Transfer air forward.

446.	P11	CFI
To land an airship that is 250 pounds heavy when the wind is calm, a wheel landing should be made with the airship
A) in trim.
B) tail heavy, up to 5°.
C) approximately 5° nose heavy.

447.	P04	CFI
Under which condition is maximum headway possible in an airship?
A) Slightly nosedown.
B) Flying at equilibrium.
C) Slightly heavy and with dynamically positive force.

448.	L05	CFI
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
A) Application of stress management and risk element procedures.
B) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
C) The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

449.	L05	CFI
Aeronautical decision making (ADM) can be defined as a
A) decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
B) systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.
C) mental process of analyzing all available information in a particular situation, making a timely decision on what action to take, and when to take the action.

450.	L05	CFI
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
A) Poor risk management and lack of stress management.
B) Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
C) Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.

451.	L05	CFI
In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
A) Making a rational judgement.
B) Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
C) Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.

452.	L05	CFI
What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?
A) Avoid allowing this hazardous thought to develop.
B) Correct this hazardous thought by making a thorough risk assessment.
C) Label the thought as hazardous and then correct that thought by stating the corresponding antidote.

453.	L05	CFI
During a stall recovery, the instructor allows the student to exceed maneuvering speed. Which best illustrates an 'antiauthority' reaction by the instructor?
A) There hasn't been a problem doing this in the past.
B) The aircraft can handle a lot more than the maneuvering speed.
C) The student should know how to recover from a stall by this time.

454.	L05	CFI
What is the antidote for a pilot with a 'macho' attitude?
A) Taking chances is foolish.
B) Follow the rules. They are usually right.
C) I'm not helpless. I can make a difference.

455.	L05	CFI
Success in reducing stress associated with a crisis in the cockpit begins with
A) knowing the exact cause of the stress.
B) assessing stress areas in one's personal life.
C) eliminating the more serious life and cockpit stress issues.

456.	L05	CFI
To help manage cockpit stress, a pilot should
A) try to relax and think rationally at the first sign of stress.
B) think of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying.
C) avoid situations that will degrade the ability to handle cockpit responsibilities.

457.	L05	CFI
The DECIDE process consists of six elements to help provide a pilot a logical way of approaching aeronautical decision making. These elements are to
A) detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.
B) determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate.
C) estimate, determine, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate.

458.	L05	CFI
Name some hazardous attitudes that can affect your judgment during the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process.
A) Peer pressure and stress levels.
B) Antiauthority, impulsivity, and resignation.
C) Impulsivity, antiestablishment, and reevaluation.

459.	L05	CFI
In order to gain a realistic perspective on one's attitude toward flying, a pilot should
A) understand the need to complete the flight.
B) take a Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test.
C) obtain both realistic and thorough flight instruction during training.

460.	L05	CFI
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
A) an appropriate antidote.
B) early recognition of these hazardous attitudes.
C) taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.

461.	L05	CFI
The aeronautical decision making (ADM) process identifies several steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps is
A) developing a 'can do' attitude.
B) making a rational evaluation of the required actions.
C) identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.

462.	L05	CFI
Many experienced pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include
A) deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations.
B) peer pressure, scud running, loss of situational awareness, and operating with inadequate fuel reserves.
C) performance deficiencies due to stress from human factors such as fatigue, illness, or emotional problems.

463.	L05	CFI
Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are to
A) assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority.
B) promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior.
C) complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and 'get the job done.'

464.

L05